Dear colleagues,

There is an issue regarding tax treatment in contract terms, aimed at maximizing tax benefits for the client/company as the "purchaser." The specific scenario is as follows:

A company signs a contract to replace lighting bulbs and fixtures with new types in a warehouse. The client pays no upfront costs before installation and final transfer of ownership. Payment is based on a proportional share of actual electricity savings (i.e., reduction in utility bills) after the new lighting products are put into use. The client has zero upfront investment but must pay a portion of the savings in subsequent periods. (Client benefit: immediate cash flow improvement.)

The question is: How should the procurement agreement be drafted so that the client/company as the "buyer" can enjoy tax benefits under IRS Section 170, and what is the tax treatment of "interest payments"? Because the product has a one-time purchase base price, or alternatively a "shared energy savings plan"—where the total amount paid over the long term (e.g., 5 years, based on a percentage of actual cost reduction) is higher than the one-time purchase price. The product may be installed as a fixture (hardwired to the electrical infrastructure) or plugged into fixed ceiling outlets. Should the agreement be worded as "lease to own," "rent to own," etc., and explicitly disclose or illustrate the "interest" portion above the initial purchase price? Or are there other options?

We kindly request any suggestions or recommended approaches.

Sincerely,

William "Bill" McPhee
[email protected]